This is a Meccan surah and one of the earliest where the Quran was establishing its moral authority by linking its ethical demands to the books of the great patriarchs, Moses and Abraham (vs 37).
This is a "Verification Anchor" that assumes the contents of the Mosaic revelation were known, accessible, and authoritative to the audience of the 7th century.
Surah 53:36:
Or hath he not been informed of what is in the books of Moses?
God asks a rhetorical question: "Has he not been informed of what is in the Scrolls of Moses?"
You cannot be "informed" by a lie or a corrupted text. If the Scrolls of Moses were already corrupted to teach "shirk" (like the sacrificial system or the Priesthood), God would not use them as a standard to rebuke a sinner.
A judge does not say, "Have you not been informed of the Law?" if the law book has been tampered with and replaced by forgeries.
This verse certifies that the contents of the Books of Moses were a valid, divine, and present standard of truth in the 7th century. Since we have the Torah from that period, its contents (which point to Christ) are the "information" God is endorsing.
The verses following (37-54) list what is supposedly in those Scrolls (e.g., that no soul bears the burden of another).
The Quran claims these specific ethical points are found in the Suhufi Musa.
If a polemicist compares these verses with the actual Torah, they find that the Torah does allow for representative and substitutionary concepts (the High Priest bearing the names of Israel, the Scapegoat bearing the sins, etc.).
The Quran is making a specific claim about what is inside the Bible. If that claim is factually incorrect according to the actual "Books of Moses," then the Quran fails its own "Informed Witness" test.
By asking "Am lam yunabba'" (Has he not been informed?), the Quran removes the excuse of the skeptic.
This implies that the Torah was a clear and accessible witness to the Meccans or the people they interacted with.
If the Torah was "clear and accessible," and it teaches the necessity of blood atonement for sin (Leviticus 17:11), then the "information" in the books of Moses actually refutes the Quranic theology of "no burden-bearing."
Surah 53:36 asks: 'Has he not been informed of what is in the Scrolls of Moses?'
If God expects us to be 'informed' by the Scrolls of Moses, then those Scrolls must be a reliable, uncorrupted source of truth.
I have been 'informed' by those Scrolls (the Torah). They tell me that God requires a blood sacrifice for the atonement of sins.
Your Quran claims those same Scrolls say something different. But we have the physical Scrolls from before and during the time of Muhammad (like the Dead Sea Scrolls and the Septuagint).
Either the 'information' in the actual Scrolls of Moses is true (which proves the Quran's theology of salvation is a departure), or the Scrolls are corrupted (which makes the Quran's question in 53:36 a trick, since no one can be 'informed' by a lie).
If God points to the Books of Moses as the standard, why do Muslim scholars point away from them?